A thin, cachectic, 61-year-old woman presents to the office requesting a prescription for a
“strong heartburn medicine.” She complains of serious abdominal pain after meals. Upon
further questioning she admits to an unwanted 25-pound weight loss over the previous 3
months. She is a nonsmoker. Physical examination is unremarkable except for some mild
epigastric tenderness. Rectal examination is heme-negative. Which of the following would be
the most appropriate definitive diagnostic test for this patient?
(A)Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with biopsy
(B) Esophageal manometry
(C) Magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the abdomen
(D) Upper gastrointestinal barium swallow
(E) Angiography of mesenteric vessels
April 17, 2024 5.3K 8
