A 22-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic after a single episode of unprotected intercourse earlier the same day. She has regular menstrual cycles, is not using any regular contraceptive method, and wishes to minimize the risk of pregnancy. She has no contraindications to hormonal therapy and prefers the regimen with the simplest dosing schedule
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological option?
Forwarded fromARYAN SINGH MEDICINE NEET-PG INI-CET
September 2, 2026 5
