A 26-year-old primiparous woman undergoes an instrumental vaginal delivery for prolonged second stage of labour. Four hours after delivery, she develops progressively worsening perineal pain that is disproportionate to examination findings. She appears restless and pale. Her pulse rate is 118/min and blood pressure is 82/56 mmHg. Examination reveals a tense, rapidly enlarging bluish swelling adjacent to the episiotomy site, while the uterus remains well contracted and vaginal bleeding is minimal. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate step in the management of this patient?
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